Re this:
The principles on which this site is run are summarised here and here. The key rule is: “assume other posters are posting in good faith”.
That does not mean that you have to believe that they are posting in good faith, simply that you should make that assumption for the purposes of discussion.
I will not “correct” posts – people are responsible for their own posts, and for any errors they contain. I will not delete posts, although I may move posts to a different thread, or to the Sandbox or to Guano. They remain publicly viewable. I will however, delete links to porn or malware, and posting such links or material are the only grounds on which I will ban anyone. Posters are complete free to disagree with me, with each other, and to be mistaken.
UD is run on different lines. Fine. I prefer mine.
Hotshoe,
It appears that you, also, are arguing against some stereotypical position and not what I am actually saying. I am not arguing that the USA is a “Christian nation”. My argument is that the First Amendment was never intended to be used the way it is being used today to strip the public sector of religious iconography, crosses or prayer, and certainly not to turn religious expression in the military into a “hate crime”.
Please try and focus on the argument I’m actually making.
That’s belied by the facts. As president, Thomas Jefferson approved treaties that included using federal funds to pay Christian ministries to evangelize native americans. These treaties were ratified by congress. That is an act in direct conflict with your view on the First Amendment, and in direct support of mine.
Another fact that contradicts your view and supports mine: when the capitol building was completed, one of the first official acts of congress was to approve the use of the capitol as a church. Jefferson not only attended church services at the capitol building regularly, but as President ordered the military band to play for church services.
A “preference” is not an “establishment”, and the founding forefathers clearly demonstrated an overwhelming preference for Christianity and used the resources of the federal government to express that preference, which is in direct contradiction to your perspective.
From the Library of Congress:
Liberty Bell Inscription:
“ Proclaim liberty throughout the land and to all the inhabitants thereof” [Leviticus 25:10]
The fact of Christian iconography being carved into stone in virtually every federal public building erected since the founding of the country belies your argument, and supports mine – my actual argument, not the argument you seem to be intent on rebutting.
You and I can engage in a battle of quotes if you wish, but the trump card is what the founding forefathers actually did when in positions of federal public service. What they actually did when in positions of government authority and power clearly and demonstrably proves that they did not intend the first amendment to be used the way it has been used ever since the Warren ruling.
I’m not making an argument that America should be a “Christian nation”, hotshoe.
It’s incredibly boring to keep reading about what ID isn’t or what ID advocates aren’t advocating.
It would be refreshing to see a proposed curriculum or an updated Wedge Document that outlines wha ID proponents think actually happened in the history of life.
Of course when they do produce teaching materials — as the Discovery Institute recently did — the results are so mockable that one could only hope for a new Dover trial.
Why am I not surprised you dismiss fact?
I’ll break it down super-simple for you: Authoritarian regimes are responsible for the greatest atrocities in history. State-sponsored famines are particularly notable.
Minorities inevitably suffer terribly. Torture is commonplace.
The onus is on you to somehow explain how authoritarian regimes could be in principle beneficial, when they have in actuality been such blights on history.
Please also present your reasoned argument, which we will read and consider, as to why the free exchange of views should be suppressed.
Not American, but I have to say what the founding fathers intended should not be especially relevant. What matters is what is for the good. The US Constitution is not an unamendable, for-all-time-perfect document.
I didn’t say I dismissed fact; I said, it’s not about fact or history, but rather about principle.
Let’s consider legal scholars considered to be the finest of their times that have the added benefit of living at a time when the context, meaning and intent of the phrases and terminology used in the constitution was still fresh – or at least much fresher than 1947-53 (which is not a “century” of Supreme court support for your position).
In the supreme court case of Vidal v. Girard’s Executors, 1844, where the city of Philadelphia was hoping to block the establishment of a Deist school, US Supreme Court Justice Joseph Story delivered the United States Supreme Court’s unanimous opinion that agreed with Philadelphia:
From Holy Trinity Church v. U.S., Feb. 29, 1892, which was a unanimous decision to allow a church to contract services from a pastor from England, even thout it apparent was in violation of a immigrant labor law:
Once again, please do not derail this into supposing I am making an argument that the US is a “Christian Nation”; that is not my argument. My argument is that ever since that Warren ruling (and the insertion of that particular phrase into the opinion), it has been used to justify all sorts of radical actions and rulings that would would have been unanimously decided against prior to that ruling.
More to come.
It is about fact. It is about history. Discussions of what should be that pay no heed to what is are moronic. As I said, the onus is on you to defend the principle.
The onus would be on me if that had anything whatsoever to do with my actual argument. I never claimed that an authoritarian regime could “in principle” be “beneficial” (whatever that means); my argument was that unless one had a principle by which authoritarian regimes could be considered “not good” as compared to others, then there is no means by which to make such a determination other than “because I say so” – which is the same principle the authoritarians use.
So, you need some principle other than “because I say so” to establish that an authoritarian regime is “not good”. You need a principle of “what is good” other than “because I say so” – because the authoritarians can use that same principle to support their regime.
I haven’t claimed that an authoritarian regime is good or not good; I’ve challenged others to explain by what non-authoritarian principle (something other than “because I say so” or “because I don’t like it”) can they determine that an authoritarian regime is “bad”, meaning, that we should not erect such a regime.
You see, it’s an argument about the principle one utilizes in making such determinations; it’s not about, and cannot be about, whether or not any authoritarian regime has ever been “good” because you have yet to offer a non-authoritarian (“because I like it”, “because I say so”) principle by which to make a ruling on the “goodness” of any authoritarian regime in history.
I never made a claim about the “good”ness or “bad”ness of authoritarian regimes; someone else did, and I challenged them to provide the principle by which they made such a determination.
All you are doing now is trying to shift the burden on me when I made no claim about the “good” or “bad” nature of authoritarian regimes.
Who gets to decide what is “good”, davehooke?
That’s what politics is for.
Or perhaps you could just tell us what is good instead of playing word games
The problem is, in a nutshell, that without an (assumed to be) absolute principle of “what is good” (what we should do), there are only (assumed to be) subjective/relative principles that are ultimately resting upon authoritarian principle, such as what Liz uses when she authoritatively defines morality in terms convenient to her view, ignoring hundreds of years of precedent that defined morality as something else entirely.
Authoritarian regimes can be both secular or religious. Secularism is no bulwark against autoritarianism. But, unless you can tell me why authoritarianism is “bad” in the first place, and by what principle (standard), you have nothing but authoritarianism to reach such an evaluation.
So, whatever “politics” says is good, is good by definition?
Yes, it’s a great shame that Dred Scott is not enforced.
Might I point out that citing precedent is not “principled.”
William, I asked you earlier, not sure whether you replied: what exactly is the definition that you think has a centuries-old precedent?
You said “obeying god” – but what god, exactly?
Any god or gods, or a specific one?
Hucklberry Finn:
My son’s moral touchstone:
“What would Mr Rogers do?”
No, but in the absence of your list of absolute moral rules, it beats the rule of priests.
You have yet to respond to the fact that even the 20th century, with Hitler and Stalin, has a better record record regarding violent death, than previous centuries.On that one metric, politics trumps religion.
I replied to that already, Liz. Not going to repeat it.
OK, I’ll search. I hoped you could give me a link. I’ve been busier at the backend than the front of the site.
Context, petrushka, context. The argument about whether or not one has any sound basis by which call an authoritarian regime “bad” is an argument about principle.
The argument about whether or not the Warren ruling, and what has ensued in the court system since, is in fact an argument about the constitution and whether legal precedent implied the ruling or if the ruling and opinion offered had a sound constitutional and historical basis.
Not all arguments are about principle.
I asked you for your source. I don’t see where you supplied it. I’m hardly obligated to respond to a bald assertion.
Liz,
If you are not willing to concede that for billions of people, for hundreds of years, “morality” meant “obeying the word or wishes or commandments of god”, regardless of “which god” or what specific actions such obeyance entailed,, then I’m not willing to engage in this particular debate any further with you.
There’s no use engaging in a debate where one side flatly denies the obvious.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/The_Better_Angels_of_Our_Nature
Ah, found it:
It makes a huge difference, because if “morality” has previously been defined as “obeying god” then what morality actually consists of depends entirely on what the god in question is perceived to demand. Which simply moves the moral choice to “which god?” rather than “what is right?” And, I’d say that precedent, if anything, has been to define God by what is right, than to definen what is right by what is God. In the Christian tradition that is explicit, in the gospels: “by their fruits you shall know them”; “would it be right for a man to pull his donkey out of a well on the Sabbath?” In other words: we discern God’s will by our sense of what is right, not the other way round. Morality may indeed consist of obeying god’s will, and not Satan’s, but historically, God and Satan have been by what is Right and Wrong, not the other way round.
No, I’m not. I’m asking you what else it could possibly mean. Defining it as “obeying god” is just buck-passing, seeing as we have to discern what is right before we can figure out whether god wants it. Unless we just choose rules from some arbitrarily chosen Scripture, which Huck Finn wisely rejected.
No, I’m not. I’m pressing you to expand on what morality has meant to billions of people for hundreds of years. My contention is (and you could demonstrate me to be wrong) is that when you unpack “obey god” in the Christian tradition, you generally end up with a process of discernment that involves figuring out what is moral, not the other way round.
Or, at least, when it does work the other way round, history tends to condemn those actions as immoral.
I’m not “denying the obvious” William. I agree that morality and obeying god have historically been considered equivalent. But “obeying God” is a black box. I want to know how you think people have figured out what God wants – because as far as I can see, the time-honoured method is to figure out what is good.
And good, has, historically, tended to mean “what benefits others”. However, weirdly interpreted “benefits” has sometimes been.
No?
One might dispute some of Pinker’s data regarding violent death, but one can hardly dispute the fact that Abrahamic priests ordered the killing of one hundred percent of defeated populations. That’s their own record, and they seem proud of it.
As they are proud of worshiping a deity that supposedly killed close to one hundred percent of all living things.
Whether these are historical facts is somewhat beside the point. It is a fact that the Christian religion is descended from a tradition that committed genocide, and Christian children are taught that the carnage of Jericho is something to be proud of and sing songs about.
I don’t see any facts or figures there that support your claim, only an article about a book that supposedly reaches the conclusion you express. The article you refer to includes the following criticisms about the book and its conclusions:
So, unless you want to provide actual facts and figures that support your claim, you are not presenting me with any “facts” I need to rebut.
I am not willing to concede that. Morality was never about obeying. Morality always involved making good judgments. People might have described it as “obeying God”, but there was never a codified list of rules to obey that could constitute morality. So describing it as “obeying God” was never more than a metaphor.
Ah.
The book has the data. Don;t be lazy.
BTW, when I googled that Huck quote to save me typing it out, I found it in this interesting, and pertinent, blog piece by Rachel Held.
She says:
OK, I think I might have finally figured out William’s position (with the help of Rachel Held):
Is it your position, William, that we are in possession of a conscience and that as long as we posit that that conscience is god-planted, we have a rational basis for obeying it? But that if we do not posit a divine provenance for it, we have no rational reason to pay any attention to it?
Yes, I know I’ve attempted another paraphrase, but it’s the only method I know for checking my understanding.
Most people that believed in an abrahamic god over the past few centuries didn’t believe they were “figuring out” what was “good” and then assigning that to “God”; they believed that God explicitly issued forth commandments via revelation about what they should and should not do and that their only job was to properly carry out the commandment, not the “goodness” of it.
That God commanded it was, to them, the basis of what “good” was defined as. If, by revelation, God commanded that it was good to sacrifice your son or dash children upon rocks or mutilate young girls or blow up a building or burn a witch, that’s what was good. Period. No figuring out “if” the revelation was moral; it’s what **was** good by definition.
Even if it meant doing things that you found horrifying or repulsive or sickening. Period.
So is “doing good”. All you are doing here is denying or avoiding the obvious because it directly contradicts your authoritarian definitional fiat of what the word “moral” means.
You made the claim. It’s not my job to dig up the facts and figures that support it.
OK, so your contention is that in the past people have considered that “doing good” was doing what appeared to them to be mandated by whatever scripture of whatever religious tradition they happen or chose to follow?
I agree that some people have believed that. I would be surprised if it was a majority. Christianity, for all its historical faults and errors, has always (from the gospels onwards) had a strong tradition of doing right being more important than sticking to divinely ordained rules. That was Jesus’ big beef with the pharisees.
You asked for the source. I gave it to you. It’s not my job to read it to you.
But go ahead and dispute the fact that your religious tradition includes theft and genocide ordered by priests, in the name of god.
Lizzie,
It is patently obvious that billions of people, for hundreds of years (including now), held morality as meaning obeyance to the revealed word of god, and that our own conceptions of what were right and wrong were secondary to that (lean not to your own understanding), even when it called upon them to do that which personally seemed wrong, horrifying, or disturbing, and even when one couldn’t understand the reasoning or sense of it.
Obeyance was considered good. Faith was considered good. Being able to do terrible things just because god supposedly commanded it was considered good.
I’m just not going to argue with people on a subject where they deny the patently obvious.
Yes, I asked for your source so I could determine if there was anything to your claim. Your source (the wiki article) doesn’t provide any material. If you are making the claim that the book provides such data, it is your job to provide the data or a link to it.
Until you do so, you haven’t supported your claim here.
I don’t have a religious tradition. You forget, I invented my own god to believe in.
Regardless of statistics, the trend in secular law has been toward softening bronze age laws. No more stoning; no more eye for an eye.
This softening is apparent even in strict Muslim countries, where honor killing is illegal.
It’s not a done deal, but it’s a trend.
The simple fact is that consensus law and morality is more desired and more desirable than morality passed down directly from Hammurabi. Which is the original source for most of Leviticus.
I don’t think we forget, William, or at least I don’t, but that’s what I find completely bewildering – if you can pick or invent – your own god, what is “objective” about it? What’s the difference between a do-it-yourself god and a do-it-yourself morality?
Whether or not god actually exists is irrelevant to any argument I’ve ever made here.
The arguments I have made is that in order to have a rationally coherent belief system concerning certain fundamental aspects of life, morality, and rationality, one must make certain assumptions. Those necessary assumptions are most efficiently achieved as a god (first cause, absolute good, etc.), regardless of whatever other characteristics one might add.
I’ve stripped the concept of “God” down to the essential and efficient characteristics necessary to provide that sound basis.
There’s nothing ontologically absolute or objective about any of it, because it’s not an argument about fact or evidence; what is absolute is the epistemological necessity of the specified assumptions expressed as characteristics and satisfied by the efficiency of the concept of God as supplier of those necessary characteristics of rational thought, morality, being, deliberacy and causality.
Edit: to clarify, I mean one must make certain assumptions whether they are conscious of it or not, and whether they admit to it or not. Those assumptions are necessary whether one realizes it or not.
WJM
… in your opinion. Yet your opinion on these ‘absolutes’ can only be relative. That it serves your purposes is not in dispute. But you are taking this to the intertubes and the publishosphere, and telling those that disagree that they are wrong … (incidentally, how has ‘efficiency’ crept into the stew?)
eta: I see your own edit – neat! Those who disagree are still wrong; they just don’t know it.
I simply don’t understand this. I mean, I know how most of the words are defined, but am struggling to parse your noun clause:
“epistemological necessity of the specified assumptions expressed as characteristics and satisfied by the efficiency of the concept of God as supplier of those necessary characteristics of rational thought, morality, being, deliberacy and causality”
Can you rephrase?
Ah, just seen your edit:
So, what are the assumptions that you deem necessary? (Yes, I realise you’ve probably said elsewhere, but it still isn’t cleary to me).
Yes. Divine command has never worked for long in the christian establishments. God (supposedly) gave us a conscience so that we could use it to discern what is good and not. And those who followed ever jot and tittle of bible law while being bad people were a common trope in literature, because people in christian culture were expected to actively search their consciences for what was good and then do that good. God inspired, yes, (perhaps) but not god-commanded. It’s way too facile to claim “god said it, that settles it”. There’s evidence that was a view that some people held, not that it was ever the view which formed the basis for most people’s morality.
As you say, the very foundation of christianity shows Jesus vs the Pharisees, the exemplars of the “god-commanded-it” school of morality.
Liz said:
Whether or not it was a majority is entirely irrelevant. The point is that your definition of “what morality is” is not the only definition that has ever existed, and is not the only definition currently in use, and that at least one other definition – obeyance to a (presumed) revealed set of commandment of God – has legitimate standing as a competitor to your definition of “what morality is”.
So your question:
Liz said:
.. has been answered.
Whether or not it was in majority is irrelevant.
And from where did Jesus supposedly get his authority to contradict what the Pharisees said was the will of god?